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And this will work much better in most blue states than most red states, which are more dependent on federal funds. Which means the likely response is the federal government will begin funding what were formerly federal programs in select states.


I'm sorry, can you clarify that last part?

The federal government will begin funding what were formerly federal programs...?


I am saying one likely outcome is a federal government that explicitly and openly funds social programs that were formerly available to everyone only in states where it has a political majority.

They will begin because they have presently stopped, and because it places additional taxation burden on blue states if they first allow the states to try to pick up their own slack, because generally only the blue states (Texas being the major possible exception) will be able to do so.

This results in the federal government taking care of their base and their opposition subsidizing this support for their base.


Gotcha, thank you; that's much clearer!




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